[May-2022] Exam CCSP: New Brain Dump Professional - 2Pass4sure
Free CCSP Exam Dumps to Improve Exam Score
Exam Outline
(ISC)2 created this CCSP designation to demonstrate that security professionals have the necessary expertise in implementing cloud security frameworks. The CCSP exam has 125 questions in multiple-choice format, where you need to answer all items within 3 hours. The passing grade of such an exam is 700 points out of 1000. Also, the test investigates skills across six security domains which are as follows:
- Data Security for the Cloud;
- Design, Cloud Terms, and Architecture;
- Operations for Cloud Security;
- Infrastructure Security & Cloud Platform;
Passing this validation ensures that you are specialized in Cloud Security and capable of designing, managing, applying, and protecting data for cloud infrastructure using best procedures and practices.
NEW QUESTION 222
Which of the following is considered an internal redundancy for a data center?
- A. Network circuits
- B. Power distribution units
- C. Power substations
- D. Generators
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Power distribution units are internal to a data center and supply power to internal components such as racks, appliances, and cooling systems. As such, they are considered an internal redundancy.
NEW QUESTION 223
Which of the following aspects of cloud computing would make it more likely that a cloud provider would be unwilling to satisfy specific certification requirements?
- A. Resource pooling
- B. Regulation
- C. Virtualization
- D. Multitenancy
Answer: D
Explanation:
With cloud providers hosting a number of different customers, it would be impractical for them to pursue additional certifications based on the needs of a specific customer. Cloud environments are built to a common denominator to serve the greatest number of customers. Especially within a public cloud model, it is not possible or practical for a cloud provider to alter its services for specific customer demands.
Resource pooling and virtualization within a cloud environment would be the same for all customers, and would not impact certifications that a cloud provider might be willing to pursue. Regulations would form the basis for certification problems and would be a reason for a cloud provider to pursue specific certifications to meet customer requirements.
NEW QUESTION 224
Which cloud storage type is typically used to house virtual machine images that are used throughout the environment?
- A. Volume
- B. Unstructured
- C. Object
- D. Structured
Answer: C
Explanation:
Object storage is typically used to house virtual machine images because it is independent from other systems and is focused solely on storage. It is also the most appropriate for handling large individual files. Volume storage, because it is allocated to a specific host, would not be appropriate for the storing of virtual images.
Structured and unstructured are storage types specific to PaaS and would not be used for storing items used throughout a cloud environment.
NEW QUESTION 225
As a result of scandals involving publicly traded corporations such as Enron, WorldCom, and Adelphi, Congress passed legislation known as:
- A. SOX
- B. FERPA
- C. HIPAA
- D. GLBA
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sarbanes-Oxley was a direct response to corporate scandals. FERPA is related to education. GLBA is about the financial industry. HIPAA is about health care.
NEW QUESTION 226
Which of the following roles is responsible for peering with other cloud services and providers?
- A. Cloud service developer
- B. Cloud auditor
- C. Inter-cloud provider
- D. Cloud service broker
Answer: C
Explanation:
The inter-cloud provider is responsible for peering with other cloud services and providers, as well as overseeing and managing federations and federated services.
NEW QUESTION 227
Which type of cloud-based storage is IRM typically associated with?
Response:
- A. Volume
- B. Unstructured
- C. Object
- D. Structured
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 228
What are SOC 1/SOC 2/SOC 3?
- A. Access controls
- B. Risk management frameworks
- C. Audit reports
- D. Software developments
Answer: C
Explanation:
An SOC 1 is a report on controls at a service organization that may be relevant to a user entity's internal control over financial reporting. An SOC 2 report is based on the existing SysTrust and WebTrust principles. The purpose of an SOC 2 report is to evaluate an organization's information systems relevant to security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, or privacy. An SOC 3 report is also based on the existing SysTrust and WebTrust principles, like a SOC 2 report. The difference is that the SOC 3 report does not detail the testing performed.
NEW QUESTION 229
For optimal security, trust zones are used for network segmentation and isolation. They allow for the separation of various systems and tiers, each with its own security level.
Which of the following is typically used to allow administrative personnel access to trust zones?
- A. VPN
- B. SSH
- C. TLS
- D. IPSec
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Virtual private networks (VPNs) are used to provide administrative personnel with secure communication channels through security systems and into trust zones. They allow staff who perform system administration tasks to have access to ports and systems that are not allowed from the public Internet. IPSec is an encryption protocol for point-to-point communications at the network level, and may be used within a trust zone but not to give access into a trust zone. TLS enables encryption of communications between systems and services and would likely be used to secure the VPN communications, but it does not represent the overall concept being asked for in the question. SSH allows for secure shell access to systems, but not for general access into trust zones.
NEW QUESTION 230
While an audit is being conducted, which of the following could cause management and the auditors to change the original plan in order to continue with the audit?
Response:
- A. Impact on systems
- B. Cost overruns
- C. Software version changes
- D. Regulatory changes
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 231
Which of the following areas of responsibility always falls completely under the purview of the cloud provider, regardless of which cloud service category is used?
- A. Physical
- B. Infrastructure
- C. Governance
- D. Data
Answer: A
Explanation:
Regardless of the cloud service category used, the physical environment is always the sole responsibility of the cloud provider. In many instances, the cloud provider will supply audit reports or some general information about their physical security practices, especially to those customers or potential customers that may have regulatory requirements, but otherwise the cloud customer will have very little insight into the physical environment. With IaaS, the infrastructure is a shared responsibility between the cloud provider and cloud customer. With all cloud service categories, the data and governance are always the sole responsibility of the cloud customer.
NEW QUESTION 232
Although much of the attention given to data security is focused on keeping data private and only accessible by authorized individuals, of equal importance is the trustworthiness of the data.
Which concept encapsulates this?
- A. Validity
- B. Confidentiality
- C. Accessibility
- D. Integrity
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Integrity refers to the trustworthiness of data and whether its format and values are true and have not been corrupted or otherwise altered through unauthorized means. Confidentiality refers to keeping data from being access or viewed by unauthorized parties. Accessibility means that data is available and ready when needed by a user or service. Validity can mean a variety of things that are somewhat similar to integrity, but it's not the most appropriate answer in this case.
NEW QUESTION 233
Which of the following roles is responsible for preparing systems for the cloud, administering and monitoring services, and managing inventory and assets?
- A. Cloud service business manager
- B. Cloud service manager
- C. Cloud service operations manager
- D. Cloud service deployment manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The cloud service operations manager is responsible for preparing systems for the cloud, administering and monitoring services, providing audit data as requested or required, and managing inventory and assets.
NEW QUESTION 234
Tokenization requires at least ____ database(s).
- A. Two
- B. One
- C. Three
- D. Four
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 235
Which of the following best describes data masking?
- A. A method where the last few numbers in a dataset are not obscured. These are often used for authentication.
- B. A method for creating similar but inauthentic datasets used for software testing and user training.
- C. A method used to protect prying eyes from data such as social security numbers and credit card data.
- D. Data masking involves stripping out all similar digits in a string of numbers so as to obscure the original number.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 236
Apart from using encryption at the file system level, what technology is the most widely used to protect data stored in an object storage system?
- A. VPN
- B. IRM
- C. TLS
- D. HTTPS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Information rights management (IRM) technologies allow security controls and policies to be enforced on a data object regardless of where it resides. They also allow for extended controls such as expirations and copying restrictions, which are not available through traditional control mechanisms. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), virtual private network (VPN), and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are all technologies and protocols that are widely used with cloud implementations for secure access to systems and services and likely will be used in conjunction with other object data protection strategies.
NEW QUESTION 237
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Few points you should know about the CCSP exam:
It is a computerized test which you will take in a secluded room with a proctor. You have to schedule your CCSP exam at least three working days in advance. CCSP Dumps recommends that you should review the types of questions that could appear on the test beforehand. Study for the entire 4 hours, because it is graded pass/fail. No breaks, but you can leave when your timer goes off. Show up 15 minutes before the scheduled exam and verify your identity. Bring an ID and a printout of the confirmation email. Do not bring anything else to the testing center, even if you are sure it is allowed. The testing center is locked off from the rest of the office space. Dress professionally and have comfortable shoes, so you can walk around for 4 hours straight. You can bring a snack or drink into the testing center, but not a phone or anything electronic. When your test begins, log in with your barcode and PIN. When you log in, you will go through an orientation with a series of tutorials. You can skip the orientation if you know what to do, and it will not count against your time. You should take a screenshot of the login window with your notes entered before starting. The clock starts with your click of Begin Test. The testing program is time-sensitive and will not wait for you to finish reading a question. If you make a mistake typing in your answers, answer the question that shows up instead of re-typing your answer. You will be timed by the testing program, but you can time yourself down to the second. You must answer all questions in a section within 33 minutes before you can move to the next section. Furthermore, you will use the keyboard rather than a pencil, so get comfortable! There are periodic breaks throughout the test where you will be given 2 to 5 minutes after every 60 minutes. The entire test is 4 hours long, and you must stay for the full-time period or your marks will not count. 10% of your overall scores are root in handwriting, with no option for automation. You will receive pass/fail scores from the testing program immediately after you finish. The CCSP certification's validity is for three years. You have to renew it before the deadline of years. For the renewal of the CCSP certificate, candidates must get 90 CPE credits (For each year of the renewal cycle, 30 CPE credits are essential) before the certification expires. CPE is called Continuing professional education. We can earn CPE (Continuing professional education) by attending seminars and workshops, Webinars, and on-demand courses.
Career Benefits
There are a lot of advantages you can get when you're CCSP certified. Your career will increase exposure, reputation, and job security by creating new opportunities to succeed in your cloud security career. With your good base in cybersecurity and cloud computing expertise, you will be a high-demand employee. Also, once you receive your CCSP, you will become an (ISC)2 member and part of the global professional community with several membership benefits. Besides, the average CCSP certified professional’s salary is USD 119k as stated by Payscale.
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